Unit – 4
1. The short statements that represent the steps the computer needs to follow to solve a problem are called
A) Flowcharts
B) Flow Diagrams
C) IPO Charts
D) Pseudo Code
2. A structure chart is
A. A document of what as to be accomplished
B. A hierarchical partitioning of the program
C. A statement of information processing requirements
D. All of the above
3. The approach used in top-down analysis and design is
A. To prepare flowcharts after programming has been completed
B. To identify a top-level function and then create a hierarchy of lower level modules and components
C. To identify the top-level functions by combining many smaller components into a single entity
D. All of the above
4. A group of related fields, is known as
A. Tuple
B. Schema
C. Records
D. File
5. In Decision trees
A. Nodes represent the conditions, with the right side of tree listing the actions to be taken
B. The root is drawn on the left and is the starting point on the decision sequence
C. The branch depends on the condition and decisions to made
D. All of the above
6. Which of the following statements is not true
A. A structured chart is a sequential representation of program design
B. The Real-Time system is a particular case of a on-line-system
C. Batch totals are not incorporated while designing real-time applications D. 4GLs are used for application proto typing
7. An example of a hierarchical data structure is
A. Array
B. Link List
C. Tree
D. Ring
8. Which of the following is an integrated collection of data with minimum redundancy, so that different applications can use the required data? A. Records
B. File
C. DBMS
D. Schema
9. Advantages of data base system is (are)
A. Storage space duplication is eliminated
B. All applications share centralized files
C. Data are stored once in the data base and are easily accessible when needed
D. All of the above
10. A data flow diagram is
A. The modern version of flowchart
B. Mainly used at the systems specification stage
C. The primarily output of the systems design phase
D. All of the above
11. Difference between Decision - Tables and Decision Trees is (are): A. Value to end user
B. Form of representation
C. One shows the logic while other shows the process
D. All of the above
12. _______ use standardized symbols to represent an algorithm.
A. Flowcharts
B. Flow Diagrams
C. IPO
D. Pseudo Code
13. Which of the following is a graphic representation of the modules in the System and the interconnection between them?
A. Pie Chart
B. Flow Chart
C. Structural Chart
D. System Chart
14. Structured design methodology is an approach to design that adheres to rales based on principles such as
A. Top – down refinement
B. Bottom – up Design
C. Data Flow Analysis
D. All of the above
15. An open rectangle
A. Defines a source or destination of system data.
B. Identifies data flow
C. Represents a process that transforms incoming data flow into outgoing data flow
D. Is a data store – data at rest, or a temporary repository of data
16. The Data flow diagram (DFD) shows;
A. The flow of data
B. The processes
C. The areas where they are stored
D. All of the above
17. Structured design produces computer programs that are
A. Easily
B. Maintained
C. Easily Understood
D. Both (a) & (b)
18. The _______ symbol is used in a flowchart to represent a calculation task. A. Input
B. Output
C. Process
D. Start
19. Which of the following tools is not used in modelling the new system? A. Decision Tables
B. Data Dictionary
C. Data Flow Diagrams
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following is not a requirement of structured design?
A. It should use many GOTO statements
B. The code should be executed in a top – to – bottom fashion within each module C. It should be made up of hierarchy of modules
D. Each module should be as independent as possible of all other modules, except its parent.
21. A Decision table
A. Represents the information flow
B. Documents rules, that select one or more actions, based on one or more conditions, from a set of possible conditions
C. Gets an accurate picture of the system
D. Shows the decision paths
22. Decision tree uses
A. Pictorial depiction of alternate conditions
B. Nodes and branches
C. Consequences of various depicted alternatives
D. All of the above
23. A graphic representation of an information system is called
A. Flow Chart
B. Pictogram
C. Data Flow Diagram
D. Histogram
24. Which of the following is not a part of a Data Flow Diagram?
A. Disk Storage
B. Arrow
C. Data Store
D. Process represented by a Bubble Circle
25. Data dictionary contains detail of
A. Data Structures
B. Data Flows
C. Data Stores
D. All of the above
26. Which of the following is not considered a tool at the system Design phase? A. Data Flow Diagram
B. Decision Table
C. Pie Chart
D. System Flowchart
27. . Graphic representation of the control logic of processing functions or modules representing a system is known as:
A. Structures Analysis
B. Structure Chart
C. Structured English
D. System Flow Chart
28. In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram
A. Is ignored
B. Is partitioned according to the "closeness" of the datagrams and data storage items
C. Is partitioned according to the logical "closeness" of the actigrams
D. D) Both (a) and (c)
30. Document Flow Diagrams are used to depict
A. how and when documents flow in the organization
B. various offices/entities of an organization and the documents as well as physical items which flow between these entities
C. what documents flow in an organization
D. how documents are generated and flow in an organization
31. Document flow diagrams are usually developed during
A. System design phase
B. Feasibility study
C. Implementation phase
D. Fact gathering phase
32. Document flow diagrams are developed by
A. systems analyst
B. programmers
C. system designers
D. users and managers of an organization
33. In a document flow diagram entity are represented by A. circles
B. rectangles with rounded edges
C. diamond shaped boxes
D. rectangles
34. In a document flow diagram a dashed line with an arrow depict A. flow of documents
B. control flow
C. flow of materials
D. data flow
35. In a document flow diagram a solid line with an arrow depicts
A. flow of documents
B. control flow
C. flow of materials
D. data flow
36. In a document flow diagram arrows are necessary to depict A. how documents flow
B. direction of flow of documents
C. when documents flow
D. whether documents flow or not
37. Data flow diagrams are used to depict
A. how and when data flows in an organization
B. what documents flow in an organization
C. what data flows between entities and how they are processed
D. how data are generated and flow in an organization
38. Data flow diagrams are usually developed during A. system design phase
B. feasibility study
C. implementation phase
D. systems analysis phase
39. In a DFD external entities are represented by a
A. rectangle
B. ellipse
C. diamond shaped box
D. circle
40. A data flow can
A. only emanate from an external entity
B. only terminate in an external entity
C. may emanate and terminate in an external entity
D. may either emanate or terminate in an external entity but not both
41. A rectangle in a DFD represents
A. a process
B. a data store
C. an external entity
D. an input unit
42. External Entities may be a
A. source of input data only
B. source of input data or destination of results
C. destination of results only
D. repository of data
43. By an external entity we mean a
A. unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst B. unit outside the system whose behaviour is independent of the system being designed
C. a unit external to the system being designed
D. a unit which is not part of a DFD
44. A data store in a DFD represents
A. a sequential file
B. a disk store
C. a repository of data
D. a random-access memory
45. A data flow can
A. only enter a data store
B. only leave a data store
C. enter or leave a data store
D. either enter or leave a data store but not both
46. A data cannot flow between a store and
(i) a store
(ii) a process
(iii) an external entity
A. i and iii
B. i and ii
C. ii and iii
D. ii
47. Data cannot flow between two data stores because
A. it is not allowed in a DFD
B. a data store is a passive repository of data
C. data can get corrupted
D. they will get merged
48. Data cannot flow from an external entity to an external entity because A. it will get corrupted
B. it is not allowed in DFD
C. an external entity has no mechanism to read or write
D. both are outside the context of the system
49. The following portion of a DFD is not correct as
A. there is no output data flow from the process
B. there are three data flow inputs to the process
C. there is no external entity
D. there is no data store
50. The following portion of a DFD is not correct as
A. there are many data flows out of the process
B. there are no input data flows to the process
C. the output does not go to an external entity
D. there is no data store
51. The following portion of DFD is wrong as
A. it has only one input
B. it writes and reads from the same data store
C. the process name is missing
D. output data flows to two external entities
52. The following process diagram in a DFD is incorrect because
A. the process is a single decision
B. the process is not specified correctly
C. there are too many input data flows
D. the process does not refer to a data store
53. The following portion of a DFD is incorrect because
A. the processes do not refer to a data store
B. there is a loop between the two processes
C. the processes are not specified correctly
D. this structure is disallowed in a DFD
54. Data flow in a DFD must have
(i) an arrow showing direction of flow of data (ii) a meaningful name
(iii)a label such as: xyz
(iv)no arrows as they are confusing
A. i and iii
B. ii and iv
C. iii and iv
D. i and ii
55. A context diagram
A. describes the context of a system
B. is a DFD which gives an overview of the system
C. is a detailed description of a system
D. is not used in drawing a detailed DFD
56. A context diagram is used
A. as the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system
B. in systems analysis of very complex systems
C. as an aid to system design
D. as an aid to programmers
57. By levelling a DFD we mean
A. splitting it into different levels
B. make its structure uniform
C. expanding a process into one with more sub-processes giving more detail
D. summarizing a DFD to specify only the essentials
58. A DFD is normally levelled as
A. it is a good idea in design
B. it is recommended by many experts
C. it is easy to do it
D. it is easier to read and understand a number of smaller DFDs than one large DFD
59. A DFD is levelled by
A. examining complex processes in a DFD and expanding them into new DFDs with more processes which are easy to understand
B. merging a number of simple processes in a DFD into a complex process in a new DFD C. expanding the functions of a number of external entities into simpler functions D. splitting a number of data flows into simpler data flows
60. When a DFD is levelled no new
A. data stores may appear
B. external entities may appear
C. processes may appear
D. data flows may appear
61. When a DFD is levelled
A. new external entities may be required
B. no new processes are allowed
C. no new data flows are allowed
D. new data stores may be necessary and are allowed
62. When a DFD is levelled it is a good idea not to
A. be concerned about the number of new processes at the next level
B. allow more than 5 to 10 new processes at the next level for each expanded process
C. allow new data stores at the next level
D. allow any new processes at the next level
63. When a process is expanded during levelling
A. data flows entering it are replaced
B. all data stores used by it are replaced
C. all data flows entering it must also enter the levelled DFD
D. all external entities used by it are replaced
64. Before developing a logical DFD it is a good idea to
A. develop a physical DFD
B. develop a system flow chart
C. determine the contents of all data stores
D. find out user’s preferences
65. A physical DFD specifies
A. what processes will be used
B. who generates data and who processes it
C. what each person in an organization does
D. which data will be generated
66. A physical DFD
A. has no means of showing material flow
B. does not concern itself with material flow
C. can show only stored material
D. can show the flow of material
67. Structured English is used to describe
A. how programs are to be written
B. processes in a DFD in a reasonably precise manner
C. how DFDs are used in data processing
D. data flows in DFD
68. Structured English is a
a. structured programming language
b. description of processes in simple English
c. method of describing computational procedures reasonably precisely in English
d. natural language based algorithmic language
69. The objective of using structured English is to
a. describes computational procedures reasonably precisely which can be understood by any user
b. expands a DFD so that a user can understand it
c. develops algorithms corresponding to processes in a DFD
d. ease writing programs for DFDs
70. Structured English description of processes
(i) should be understandable to a user of a computer based system
(ii) should be understandable to a programmer
(iii) can be descriptive in nature
(iv) should be translatable by a compiler
a. i and iii
b. ii and iv
c. i, ii and iv
d. i and ii
71. A decision table is
a. a truth table
b. a table which facilitates taking decisions
c. a table listing conditions and actions to be taken based on the testing of conditions
d. a table in a Decision Support System
72. A decision table
a. has a structured English equivalent representation
b. cannot be represented using structured English
c. does not have an equivalent algorithmic representation
d. cannot be used to represent processes in a DFD
73. A decision table is preferable when the number of
a. conditions to be checked in a procedure is small
b. conditions to be checked in a procedure is large
c. actions to be carried out are large
d. actions to be carried out are small
74. Select from the following list which are appropriate to use in structured English description of a process
(i) process inventory records
(ii) find the sum of outstanding billed amounts
(iii) check if outstanding amount >= Rs. 5000
(iv) check if stock is low
a. i and ii
b. i and iii
c. iii and iv
d. ii and iii
75. Structured English statements must be
a. short and clear
b. specified quantitatively
c. specified qualitatively
d. detailed and descriptive
76. Select statements from the following list which may be used in structured English (i) if marks are too low fail student
(ii) if marks >=60 enter first class
(iii) if average height select candidate
(iv) if weight < 40 kg. reject candidate
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. iii and iv
d. ii and iv
77. Structured English description of data processing is a
a. non-procedural specification
b. procedural specification
c. purely descriptive specification
d. very imprecise specification
78. Decision table description of data processing is
a. non-procedural specification
b. procedural specification
c. purely descriptive specification
d. very imprecise specification
79. In the following word statement the conditions are:“if a student gets 50 marks or more in mathematics and 40 marks or more in English he passes the examination, otherwise, he fails”
a. student passes the examination
b. student fails the examination
c. student gets 50 marks or more in mathematics
d. student mathematics marks >= 50 and student English marks
80. In a limited entry decision table the condition stub
a. lists X or – corresponding to actions to be executed
b. lists the conditions to be tested
c. has Y or N or – entries
d. lists the actions to be taken
81. In a limited entry decision table the condition entries
a. list X or – corresponding to actions to be executed
b. list the conditions to be tested
c. have Y or N or – entries
d. list the actions to be taken
82. In a limited entry decision table the action stub
a. lists X or – corresponding to actions to be executed
b. lists the conditions to be tested
c. has Y or N or – entries
d. lists the actions to be taken
83. In a limited entry decision table the action entries
a. list X or – corresponding to actions to be executed
b. list the conditions to be tested
c. have Y or N or – entries
d. list the actions to be taken
84. In a limited entry decision table the condition entries may be a. Y or N only
b. Y, N or –
c. A binary digit
d. Any integer
85. In a limited entry decision table a—entry against a condition signifies that
a. the outcome of testing the condition is irrelevant
b. it is an important condition
c. the condition should be tested
d. the condition is a Boolean condition
86. A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
a. row of the table consisting of condition entries
b. row of the table consisting of action entries
c. column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding action entries
87. The conditions in the condition stub of a limited entry decision table a. must be in sequential order
b. must be in the order in which they are to be tested
c. may be in any order
d. must be in the order in which they are to be executed
88. The actions in the action stub of a limited entry decision table a. must be in sequential order
b. must be in the order in which they are to be tested
c. may be in any order
d. must be in the order in which they are to be executed
89. A X against an action in an action row signifies that the
a. action is not to be taken
b. action is to be taken
c. action is important
d. action is not important
90. A—against an action in an action row signifies that the
a. action is not to be taken
b. action is to be taken
c. action is important
d. action is not important
91. An extended entry decision table has
a. only Y, N or – entries
b. entries which extend the condition
c. questions asked extended into the condition entry part of the table d. only numerical entries
92. An extended entry decision table
a. has no limited entry equivalent
b. cannot be replaced by a table with only Y, or – entries
c. may have Yes, No answers to conditions
d. can always be converted to an equivalent limited entry decision table
93. An extended entry decision table is
a. very difficult to understand
b. quite concise compared to a limited entry decision table developed for the same task
c. large compared to a limited entry table developed for the same task
d. is not very often used
94. Decision Trees are preferred when
a. Too many conditions need to be tested
b. Sequencing of testing conditions is important
c. When there are many loops to be performed
d. When too many actions are to be taken
95. Decision Tables are preferred when
a. Too many conditions need to be tested
b. Sequencing of testing conditions is important
c. When there are many loops to be performed
d. When too many actions are to be taken
96. Structured English is preferred when
a. any conditions need to be tested
b. Sequencing of testing conditions is important
c. When there are many loops to be performed
d. When too many actions are to be taken
97. The objective of using decision trees is to
a. Expand a DFD so that a user can understand it
b. To specify sequence of conditions to be tested and actions to be taken
c. Describe a computational procedure that can be easily understood by a person
d. Use it as a tool in decision support system
98. Decision trees are superior to decision tables when
a. The number of conditions to be tested is very large
b. When sequence of testing conditions is not particularly important
c. When sequence of testing conditions is not particularly important
d. When a large number of actions are to be specified
99. Logical correctness of a specifications can be systematically checked by a. Using decision trees
b. Using structured English
c. Using DFD’s
d. Using decision tables
Unit – 4 (Set 2)
1. A data dictionary has consolidated list of data contained in (i) dataflows (ii) data stores (iii) data outputs (iv) processes a. (i) and (iii)
b. (i) and (ii)
c. (ii) and (iv)
d. (i) and (iv)
2. A data dictionary is useful as
(i) it is a documentation aid (ii) it assists in designing input forms (iii) it contains al data in an application including temporary data used in processes (iv) it is a good idea in system design
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iv)
c. (i),(ii) and (iii)
d. (i) and (iv)
3. By metadata we mean
a. very large data
b. data about data
c. data dictionary
d. meaningful data
4. A data dictionary is usually developed
a. At requirements specification phase
b. During feasibility analysis
c. When DFD is developed
d. When a datadase is designed
5. A data dictionary has information about
a. every data element in a data flow
b. only key data element in a data flow
c. only important data elements in a data flow
d. only numeric data elements in a data flow
6. A data element in a data dictionary may have
a. only integer value
b. no value
c. only real value
d. only decimal value
7. A data element in a data flow
(i) may be an integer number (ii) may be a real number
(iii) may be binary (iv)may be imaginary
a. (i),(ii),(iv)
b. (iii),(iv),(ii)
c. (i),(ii),(iii)
d. (i) and (ii)
8. It is necessary to carefully design data input to a computer based system because a. it is good to be careful
b. the volume of data handled is large
c. the volume of data handled is small
d. data entry operators are not good
9. Errors occur more often when
a. data is entered by users
b. data is entered by operators
c. when data is handwritten by users and entered by an operator
d. the key board design is bad
10. Good system design prevents data entry errors by
(i) Designing good forms with plenty of space to write in block capitals (ii)By giving clear instructions to a user on how to fill a form
(iii)Reducing keystrokes of an operator
(iv)Designing good keyboard
a. i, ii, iii
b. i, ii, iv
c. i, ii
d. iii and iv
11. In on-line data entry it is possible to
a. Give immediate feedback if incorrect data is entered
b. Eliminate all errors
c. Save data entry operators time
d. Eliminate forms
12. The main problems encountered in off-line data entry are: (i)Data are entered by operators
(ii)Data entered by hand in forms batched and forms may be missed or misread (iii) Errors are detected after a lapse of time
(iv)Data are entered by users
a. i and ii
b. i and iii
c. ii and iii
d. iii and iv
13. In interactive data input a menu is used to
a. enter new data
b. add/delete data
c. select one out of many alternatives often by a mouse click d. detect errors in data input
14. In interactive data input a template is normally used to a. enter new data
b. add/delete data
c. select one out of many alternatives often by a mouse click d. detect errors in data input
15. In interactive data input terminal commands are normally used to a. enter new data
b. add/delete data
c. select one out of many alternatives often by a mouse click d. detect errors in data input
16. Data inputs which required coding are
a. fields which specify prices
b. key fields
c. name fields such as product name
d. fields which are of variable length
17. Key fields are normally coded
a. i and ii
b. i and iv
c. ii and iii
d. i and iii
18. A code is useful to represent a key field because
a. it is a concise representation of the field
b. it is usually done by all
c. it is generally a good idea
d. it is needed in database design
19. By the term “concise code” we understand that the code a. conveys information on item being coded
b. is of small length
c. can add new item easily
d. includes all relevant characteristics of item being coded
20. By the term “expandable code” we understand that the code a. conveys information on item being coded
b. is of small length
c. can add new item easily
d. includes all relevant characteristics of item being coded
21. By the term “meaningful code” we understand that the code a. conveys information on item being coded
b. is of small length
c. can add new item easily
d. includes all relevant characteristics of item being code
22. By the term “comprehensive code“ we understand that the code a. conveys information on item being coded
b. is of small length
c. can add new item easily
d. includes all relevant characteristics of item being coded
23. A concise code is necessarily
a. Precise
b. Meaningful
c. Comprehensive
d. Difficult
24. Serial numbers used as codes are
(i) concise (ii) meaningful (iii) expandable (iv) comprehensive a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. ii and iv
d. i and iii
25. Block codes are
(i) concise (ii )meaningful (iii)expandable (iv)comprehensive a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. iii and iv
d. i and iii
26. Group classification codes are
(i)concise (ii)meaningful (iii) expandable (iv)comprehensive a. i and ii
b. i, ii and iii
c. ii, iii and iv
d. i, ii and iv
27. Significant codes are
(i) concise (ii)meaningful (iii) expandable (iv)comprehensive a. i and ii
b. i, ii and iii
c. ii, iii and iv
d. i, ii and iv
28. In significant codes some or all parts of the code
a. are meaningful
b. are usable
c. are significant
d. represent values
29. Errors in codes are detected by
a. proper design of code
b. introducing redundant digits/characters designed to detect errors c. making the code concise
d. making the code precise
30. Design of error detecting codes requires good
a. knowledge of mathematics
b. statistical mechanics
c. statistics of errors normally committed during data entry
d. Boolean algebra
Key to Objective Questions 1 to 30
1- b; 2- c; 3- b; 4- c; 5- a; 6- b; 7- c; 8- b; 9- c; 10- a; 11- a; 12- c; 13- c; 14- a; 15- b; 16- b; 17- d; 18- a; 19- b; 20- c; 21- a; 22- d; 23- a; 24- d; 25- b; 26- c; 27- c; 28- d; 29- b; 30- c
1. An entity is
(a) a collection of items in an application
(b) a distinct real world item in an application (c) an inanimate object in an application
(d) a data structure
Answer: b
2. Pick entities from the following:
(i) vendor
(ii) student
(iii) attends
(iv) km/hour
(a) i, ii, iii (b) i, ii, iv
(c) i and ii (d) iii and iv
Answer: c
3. A relationship is
(a) an item in an application
(b) a meaningful dependency between entities (c) a collection of related entities
(d) related data
Answer: b
4. Pick the relationship from the following: (a) a classroom
(b) teacher
(c) attends
(d) cost per dozen
Answer: c
5. Pick the meaningful relationship between entities (a) vendor supplies goods
(b) vendor talks with customers
(c) vendor complains to vendor
(d) vendor asks prices
Answer: a
6. The entity set is a
(a) set of entities
(b) collection of different entities
(c) collection of related entities
(d) collection of similar entities
Answer: d
7. Pick entity set from the following
(a) all vendors supplying to an organization (b) vendors and organizations they supply (c) vendors and transporters
(d) a vendor supplying to many organizations Answer: a
8. Attributes are
(i) properties of relationship (ii) attributed to entities (iii) properties of members of an entity set
(a) i (b) i and ii (c) i and iii (d) iii
Answer: c
9. The attributes of relationship teaches in teacher teaches course should be (a) teacher code, teacher name, dept, phone no
(b) course no, course name, semester offered, credits
(c) teacher code, course no, semester no
(d) teacher code, course no, teacher name, dept, phone no
Answer: c
10. The expansion of E-R diagram is
(a) Entity-Relationship diagram
(b) Entity-Relative diagram
(c) Entity-Relation diagram
(d) Entity-Rationalized diagram
Answer: a
11.In an E-R diagram entities are represented by
(a) circles (b) rectangles (c) diamond shaped box (d) ellipse Answer: b
12. In an E-R diagram relationship is represented by
(a) circles (b) rectangles (c) diamond shaped box (d) ellipse Answer: c
13. Entities are identified from the word statement of a problem by (a) picking words which are adjectives
(b) picking words which are nouns
(c) picking words which are verbs
(d) picking words which are pronouns
Answer: b
14. Relationships are identified from the word statement of a problem by (a) picking words which are adjectives
(b) picking words which are nouns
(c) picking words which are verbs
(d) picking words which are pronouns
Answer: c
15. One entity may be
(a) related to only one other entity
(b) related to itself
(c) related to only two other entities
(d) related to many other entities
Answer: d
16. By relation cardinality we mean
(a) number of items in a relationship
(b) number of relationships in which an entity can appear
(c) number of items in an entity
(d) number of entity sets which may be related to a given entity
Answer: b
17. If an entity appears in only one relationship then it is
(a) a 1:1 relationship
(b) a 1:N relationship
(c) a N:1 relationship
(d) a N:M relationship
Answer: a
18. If an entity appears in N relationships then it is
(a) a 1:1 relationship
(b) a 1:N relationship
(c) a N:1 relationship
(d) a N:M relationship
Answer: b
19. If an entity appears in not more than 5 relationships then it is a (a) 1:1 relationship
(b) 1:5 relationship
(c) 5:1 relationship
(d) 5:5 relationship
Answer: b
20. A pilot can fly three types of planes and a plane can be piloted by any qualified pilot. The pilot-plane type relationship is
(a) N:3
(b) 3:N
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:1
Answer: a
21. A student can take not more than 5 subjects in a semester. The number of students allowed in a subject in a semester is not more than 40. The student – subject relationship is:
(a) 5:40
(b) 40:5
(c) N:5
(d) 40:M
Answer: b
22. The following E-R diagram is interpreted as follows:
(a) A doctor treats upto N patients
(b) A doctor treats exactly N patients
(c) A doctor may treat upto N patients; Some doctors may not treat any patients (d) A doctor will treat patients based on some conditions
Answer: c
23. A relation is
(a) an entity
(b) a relationship
(c) members of a relationship set
(d) members of an entity set or a relationship set
Answer: d
24. Rows of a relation are called
(a) tuples
(b) a relation row
(c) a data structure
(d) an entity
Answer: a
25. The rows of a relation
(a) must be in specified order
(b) may be in any order
(c) in ascending order of key
(d) in descending order of key
Answer: b
26. The columns of a relation
(a) must be in specified order
(b) may be in any order
(c) with key field in first column
(d) with largest width column last
Answer: b
27. Relations are used in logical database design because
(i) sound theory of relations facilitates systematic design of relational databases (ii) they are very popular
(iii) they are flat files and easy to store and retrieve from computer’s memory (iv) E-R diagrams allow design of relations
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii (c) ii and iii (d) iii and iv
Answer: b
28. Normalization is a process of restructuring a relation to
(a) minimize duplication of data in a database
(b) maximize duplication of data to ensure reliability
(c) make it of uniform size
(d) allow addition of data
Answer: a
29. Normalization of database is essential to
(i) avoid accidental deletion of required data when some data is deleted (ii) eliminate inconsistencies when a data item is modified in the database (iii) allows storage of data in a computer’s disk
(iv) use a database management system
(a) i and iii (b) i and ii (c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv
Answer: b
30. The process of normalization
(a) is automatic using a computer program
(b) requires one to understand dependency between attributes
(c) is manual and requires semantic information
(d) is finding the key of a relation
Answer: b
31. The following relation is not normalized because
(a) It is difficult to store due to non–uniform size of the attributes (b) Roll no. 4568 have 3 course line whereas Roll no. 4954 has only one course line (c) The composite attribute (CS 101, C.S., 1) is repeated
(d) Some item lines have composite attributes
Answer: d
32. The relation given in Exercise 10.4.4 may be converted to 1 NF relation by (a) eliminating composite attributes
(b) eliminating common attributes
(c) duplicating common attributes as many times as lines in corresponding attributes
(d) putting composite attributes in a separate table
Answer: c
33. A relation is said to be in 1NF if
(a) there is no duplication of data
(b) there are no composite attributes in the relation
(c) there are only a few composite attributes
(d) all attributes are of uniform type
Answer: b
34. The number of normal forms which has been proposed and discussed in the book are
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Answer: d
35. A relation which is in a higher normal form
(a) implies that it also qualifies to be in lower normal form
(b) does not necessarily satisfy the conditions of lower normal form (c) is included in the lower normal form
(d) is independent of lower normal forms
Answer: a
36. Given an attribute x, another attribute y is dependent on it, if for a given x (a) there are many y values
(b) there is only one value of y
(c) there is one or more y values
(d) there is none or one y value
Answer: b
37. An attribute y may be functionally dependent on
(i) a composite attribute x,y
(ii) a single attribute x
(iii) no attribute
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii (c) ii and iii (d) iii
Answer: a
38. A second Normal Form (2 NF) relation should
(a) be in 1 NF
(b) not have a composite key
(c) not have attributes dependent on key attribute
(d) not have attributes dependent on one another
Answer: a
39. Boye Codd Normal Form (BCNF) is needed when
(a) two non-key attributes are dependent
(b) there is more then one possible composite key
(c) there are two or more possible composite overlapping keys and one attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of another composite key (d) there are two possible keys and they are dependent on one another Answer: c
40. A relation is said to be in BCNF when
(a) it has overlapping composite keys
(b) it has no composite keys
(c) it has no multivalued dependencies
(d) it has no overlapping composite keys which have related attributes Answer: d
41. A 3 NF relation is converted to BCNF by
(a) removing composite keys
(b) removing multivalued dependencies
(c) dependent attributes of overlapping composite keys are put in a separate relation
(d) dependent non-key attributes are put in a separate table
Answer: c
42. BCNF is needed because
(a) otherwise tuples may be duplicated
(b) when a data is deleted tuples may be lost
(c) updating is otherwise difficult
(d) when there is dependent attributes in two possible composite keys one of the attributes is unnecessarily duplicated in the tuples
Answer: d
43. Fourth normal form (4 NF) relations are needed when (a) there are multivalued dependencies between attributes in composite key (b) there are more than one composite key
(c) there are two or more overlapping composite keys
(d) there are multivalued dependency between non-key attributes Answer: a
44. A 3 NF relation is split into 4 NF
(a) by removing overlapping composite keys
(b) by splitting into relations which do not have more than one independent multivalued dependency
(c) removing multivalued dependency
(d) by putting dependent non-key attribute in a separate table
Answer: b
45. By redundancy in a file based system we mean that
(a) unnecessary data is stored
(b) same data is duplicated in many files
(c) data is unavailable
(d) files have redundant data
Answer: b
46. Data integrity in a file based system may be lost because
(a) the same variable may have different values in different files (b) files are duplicated
(c) unnecessary data is stored in files
(d) redundant data is stored in files
Answer: a
47. Data availability is often difficult in file based system
(a) as files are duplicated
(b) as unnecessary data are stored in files
(c) as one has to search different files and these files may be in different update states
(d) redundant data are stored in files
Answer: c
48. Management policy changes are difficult to implement in a file based system because
(a) relating data in different files is difficult
(b) files are duplicated
(c) redundant data are stored
(d) unnecessary data is stored
Answer: a
49. Some of the objectives of a database management system are to (i) minimize duplication of data
(ii) ensure centralized management control of data
(iii) ease retrieval of data
(iv) maintain a data dictionary
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii and iv (c) i and iii (d) i, ii and iii Answer: d
50. A database is a
(a) collection of files
(b) collection of inputs and outputs of application
(c) collection of related data necessary to manage an organization (d) data resource of an organization
Answer: c
51. A database models data so that it is
(a) appropriate for application
(b) independent of application program
(c) optimized for most frequent applications
(d) optimized for all applications
Answer: b
52. A database should be designed to allow providing
(a) different views of portions of data requested by an application (b) data only to selected applications as decided by an organization (c) a uniform view of data to all applications
(d) data to all applications
Answer: a
53. The abbreviation DBMS stands for
(a) Data Base Manipulation System
(b) Data Bank Manipulating System
(c) Data Base Management System
(d) Data Bank Management System
Answer: c
54. A DBMS is
(a) another name for database system
(b) independent of a database
(c) dependent on application programs
(d) is a set of procedures which manage a database
Answer: d
55. A DBMS
(a) is a set of procedures
(b) manages a database
(c) is a set of procedures to manage a database to provide data as required by applications
(d) provides data to applications
Answer: c
56. One of the main objectives of a DBMS is to
(a) Create a database for an organization
(b) Facilitate sharing of a database by current and future applications (c) Allow sharing application programs
(d) Replace file based systems
Answer: b
57. Database is
(a) an important resource of an organization
(b) not relevant to existing programs
(c) not relevant for future programs
(d) not as good as files as there is redundancy
Answer: a
58. By data independence we mean application programs (a) do not need data
(b) may be developed independent of data
(c) may be developed without knowing the organization of data (d) may be developed with independent data
Answer: c
59. Data independence allows
(i) no changes in application programs
(ii) change in database without affecting application programs (iii) hardware to be changed without affecting application programs (iv) system software to be changed without affecting application programs (a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv Answer: c
60. Data independence allows
(a) sharing the same database by several applications
(b) extensive modification of applications
(c) no data sharing between applications
(d) elimination of several application programs
Answer: a
61. Among objectives of DBMS are ensuring
(i) data integrity
(ii) data redundancy
(iii) data security
(iv) easy data retrieval
(a) i, ii (b) i, iii (c) i, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii
Answer: c
62. DBMS
(a) does not allow replication of data
(b) allows controlled replication of data if it improves performance (c) does not allow common data to be duplicated
(d) does not allow replication as it adversely affects reliability Answer: b
63. By data integrity we mean
(a) maintaining consistent data values
(b) integrated data values
(c) banning improper access to data
(d) not leaking data values
Answer: a
64. Data integrity is ensured by
(a) good data editing
(b) propagating data changes to all data items
(c) preventing unauthorized access
(d) preventing data duplication
Answer: b
65. By data security in DBMS we mean
(a) preventing access to data
(b) allowing access to data only to authorized users
(c) preventing changing data
(d) introducing integrity constraints
Answer: b
66. DBMS must implement management controls to
(i) control access rights to users
(ii) implement audit trail when changes are made
(iii) allow data to be used extensively in the organization
(iv) duplicate databases
(a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) iii, iv (d) i, iv
Answer: a
67. An E-R modelling for given application leads to
(a) conceptual data model
(b) logical data model
(c) external data model
(d) internal data model
Answer: a
68. A conceptual data model is converted using a Relational Data Base Management System to a
(a) logical data model
(b) external data model
(c) internal data model
(d) an entity-relation data model
Answer: a
69. A subset of logical data model accessed by programmers is called a (a) conceptual data model
(b) external data model
(c) internal data model
(d) an entity-relation data model
Answer: b
70. When a logical model is mapped into a physical storage such as a disk store the resultant data model is known as
(a) conceptual data model
(b) external data model
(c) internal data model
(d) disk data model
Answer: c
71. A DBMS has the following components
(i) a data definition language
(ii) a query language
(iii) a security system
(iv) audit trail
(a) i, ii (b) i, ii, iii (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
Answer: c
72. A check pointing system is needed
(a) to ensure system security
(b) to recover from transient faults
(c) to ensure system privacy
(d) to ensure system integrity
Answer: b
73. A database administrator
(a) administers data in an organization
(b) controls all inputs and all outputs of programs
(c) is controller of data resources of an organization
(d) controls all data entry operators
Answer: c
74. The responsibilities of a database administrator includes (i) maintenance of data dictionary
(ii) ensuring security of database
(iii) ensuring privacy and integrity of data
(iv) obtain an E-R model
(a) i, ii (b) i, ii, iii (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) ii, iii, iv Answer: b
75. Access right to a database is controlled by
(a) top management
(b) system designer
(c) system analyst
(d) database administrator
Answer: d
76. The sequence followed in designing a DBMS are (a) physical model _ conceptual model _ logical model (b) logical model _ physical model _ conceptual model (c) conceptual model _ logical model _ physical model (d) conceptual model _ physical model _ logical model Answer: c
77. Designing physical model of DBMS requires information on (i) data volume
(ii) frequency of access to data
(iii) programming language used
(iv) secondary memory characteristics
(a) i, ii (b) i, ii, iii (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
Answer: d
78. A good database design
(i) caters primarily to current needs
(ii) caters to current and future needs as organizations grow (iii) has to be modified when hardware is upgraded (iv) ensures data security
(a) i, ii (b) i, ii, iii (c) ii, iv (d) iii, iv
Answer: c
79. A good database design
(i) is expandable with growth and changes in organization
(ii) easy to change when software changes
(iii) ensures data integrity
(iv) allows access to only authorized users
(a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii
Answer: c
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