Q1.The predecessor activity of activity B refers to …..
a. activity that is performed immediately before B
b. An activity that is performed immediately after B
c. An activity that is performed in parallel to B
d. The initial activity of the project
Ans: Activity that is performed immediately Before B
Q2.Which one of the following refers to a minimum time in which an activity can be completed under favorable circumstances?
a. Most likely time
b. Optimistic time
c. Pessimistic time
d. Total time
Ans: Optimistic Time
Q3.The general flow of a network diagram is:
a. Right to left
b. Left to right
c. Upwards
d. Downwards
Ans: Left to Right
Q4.Which one of the following is prohibited in a network diagram?
a. Use of arrow
b. Use of node
c. Use of loop
d. Dummy activity
Ans: Use of Loop
Q5.PERT stands for:
a. Project Evaluation and Review Technique
b. Project Estimation and review technique
c. Project establishment and Review Technique
d. Project Execution and review Technique
Ans: Project Evaluation and Review Technique
Q6.What does a circle represent in the network?
a. Total float of an activity
b. Finishing and starting point of activities
c. Initial activity of the network
d. Terminal activity of the network
Ans: Finishing and starting point of activities
Q7.A merge event refers to __________
a. The nod that represents the completion of multi activities
b. The initial nod of the network
c. Terminal nod of the network
d. The nod that represents initiation of multiple activities
Ans: The nod that represents the completion of multi activities
Q8.What do you mean by a burst event?
a. The nod that represents the completion of multi activities
b. The initial nod of the network
c. Terminal nod of the network
d. The nod that represents initiation of multiple activities
Ans: The nod that represent initiation of multiple activites
Q9.Which one of the following is not performed in the CPM technique for project scheduling?
a. Identifying the activities in the project
b. Determining the dependency and sequence of the activities
c. Developing the network diagram
d. Estimating the pessimistic time
Ans: Identifying the activities in the project
Q10. The formula te=(to + 4 x tm + tp )/6 is used for calculating the _________________________
a. Optimistic time of an activity
b. Pessimistic time of an activity
c. Most likely time of an activity
d. Expected time of an activity
Ans: Expected time of an activity
Q11. The difference between the LS and ES time of an activity is called:
a. Total float
b. Free float
c. Interfering float
d. Independent float
Ans: Total float
Q12. The difference between LF and EF of an activity equals to the :
a. Total float of the activity
b. Free float of the activity
c. Independent flow of the activity
d. Interfering float of the activity
Ans: Total float of the activity
Q13. Critical activities refer to :
a. The activities that lie on the critical path
b. The initial activities of the project
c. The terminal activities in the project
d. Activities with the longest time duration
Ans: The activities that lie on the critical path
Q14. _________is the free time available for an activity which can be utilized without delaying the project.
a. Early stat time
b. Latest finish time
c. Critical path
d. Float
Ans: Float
Q15. The number of peaks in a normal distribution curve is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans: 1
Q16. Which one of the following refers to an imaginary activity that consumes no time or resources?
a. Burst event
b. Merge event
c. Dummy activity
d. Critical path
Ans: Dummy Activity
Q17. ___________signifies the part of the float time of an activity that can be used without affecting the initial and terminal event of the network.
a. Independent float
b. Free float
c. Interfering float
d. Total float
Ans: Independent float
Q18. CPM model was developed by:
a. General electrics
b. Du-Pont
c. BCG
d. US Navy
Ans: Du-Pont
Q19. Forward pass calculation is used for determining:
a. ES and EF
b. LS and LF
c. Total float
d. Free float
Ans: ES and EF
Q20. Backward pass calculation is used for calculating:
a. LS and LF
b. ES and EF
c. Independent float
d. Interfering float
Ans: LS and LF
Q21. Which one of the following key elements is not planned, monitored, and controlled in the PMC cycle?
a. Time
b. Cost
c. Performance
d. Relationship
Ans: Relationship
Q22. Which one of the following is not a process involved in the PMC cycle?
a. Budgeting
b. Executing
c. Monitoring
d. Planning
Ans: Budgeting
Q23. Which one of the following is not an objective of project monitoring?
a. Assessing the risks involved in a project
b. Identifying the potential of team members
c. Identifying the main cause of delay in the completion of the project
d. Recognizing the factors that affect the progress of the project
Ans: Identifying the potential of team members
Q24. __________ signify the results of the project in terms of the goals achieved and a number of products produced
a. Input indicators
b. Output indicators
c. Outcome indicators
d. Impact indicators
Ans: Outcome indicators
Q25. Which one of the following is not an advantage of controlling a project?
a. Deciding the remuneration of employees
b. Creating better quality
c. Coping with change
d. Creating faster cycles
Ans: Deciding the remuneration of employees
Q26. _______ involves putting the project plan into action to achieve the set goals objectives of a project.
a. Planning
b. Closing
c. Monitoring
d. Executing
Ans: Executing
Q27. Which one of the following is not a type of report?
a. Routine reports
b. Exception reports
c. Emergency reports
d. Special analysis reports
Ans: Emergency Reports
Q28. Which one of the following is not another name of earned value analysis?
a. Performance measurement
b. Management by objectives
c. Budgeted cost of work performed
d. Talent management
Ans: Talent Management
Q29. According to ______ “A method for measuring project performance. It compares the amount of work that was planned with what was actually accomplished to determine if cost and schedule performance is as planned.”
a. Englert and Associates, Inc.
b. Project magazine
c. NASA
d. Field operative
Ans: Englert and Associates, Inc.
Q30. Which one of the following is not an advantage of efficient reporting system?
a. Develops mutual understanding among the different levels of management
b. Avails information regarding the progress of parallel activities
c. Helps in identifying problems associated with the project
d. Creates time and budget constraints in a project
Ans: Creates time and budget constraints in project
Q31. According to _________, “Control of an undertaking consists of seeing that everything is being carried out in accordance with the plan which has been adopted, the orders which have been given, and the principles which have been laid down. Its object is to point out mistakes in order that they may be rectified and prevented from recurring.”
a. Harold Koontz
b. Henri Fayol
c. Robert J. Mocker
d. Reeves and Woodward
Ans: Henri Fayol
Q32. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal controlling system?
a. Time bound
b. Flexibility
c. Cost effective
d. Usefulness
Ans: Time bound
Q33. Which one of the following control tool is used to compare the actual revenue and expenses of the organization with its actual budget?
a. Financial control
b. Budgetary control
c. Quality control
d. Human Resource control
Ans: Budgetary Control
Q34. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of management control system?
a. Provides information regarding the actual status of the project
b. Integrates techniques to collect and use information to facilitate the control function
c. Helps managers in regulating activities
d. Resolves conflicts among team members
Ans: Resolves conflicts among team members
Q35. MIS stands for:
a. Managerial information source
b. Managerial information supply
c. Managerial information system
d. Managerial information server
Ans: Managerial information system
Q36. In _______ , different accounting figures, such as total income and profit and loss of the organization, are compared with the other relevant figures.
a. Ratio analysis
b. Financial audits
c. Financial statements
d. Income statement
Ans: Radio Analysis
Q37. Which one of the following control systems in used by the top-level management of the organization?
a. Concurrent control
b. Strategic control system
c. Tactical control system
d. Operational control system
Ans: Strategic control System
Q38. Which one of the following is not a tool of financial control?
a. Financial statements
b. Financial audits
c. Financial ratio analysis
d. Quality assurance
Ans: Quality Assurance
Q39. Which one of the following contains information regarding the assets, liability, and equity of an organization?
a. Cash flow statement
b. Income statement
c. Balance sheet
d. Audit statement
Ans: Balance Sheet
Q40. According to _______, “management control system is an integrated technique for collecting and using information to motivate employee behavior and to evaluate performance.”
a. Horngren et al
b. Simons
c. Maciariello et al
d. Henery fayol
Ans: Hornren et al
Q41. Which one of the following factors is not a part of CBA?
a. Raw material cost
b. Labor cost
c. Rent
d. Environmental pollution
Ans: Environmental pollution
Q42. UNIDO stands for:
a. United Nations International Development Organization
b. United Nations Internal Development Organization
c. United Nations Indian Development Organization
d. United nations Industrial development Organization
Ans: United Nations Industrial Development Organization
Q43. UNIDO approach was formulated in ______
a. 1968
b. 1978
c. 1988
d. 1998
Ans: 1978
Q44. How many basic SCBA approaches are there?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Two
d. Six
Ans: Two
Q45. _____ refers to returns generated from a project in monetary or non-monetary terms and enjoyed by the society.
a. Private cost
b. Private benefit
c. Social cost
d. Social benefit
Ans: Social benefit
Q46. Which one of the following factors is not considered by Indian financial institutions?
a. Effective rate of protection
b. Economic rate of return
c. Accounting rate of return
d. Domestic resource cost
Ans: Accounting rate of return
Q47. Which one of the following is not a step involved in adjusting the impacts of a project on merits and demerits?
a. Estimating the economic value of goods
b. Calculating the adjustment factor
c. Multiplying the economic value of goods with the adjustment factor to determine the adjustment amount
d. Adjusting the impact of a project on income distribution
Ans: Adjusting the impact of a project on income distribution
Q48. ________ indicates the unit of accounting for measuring the cost incurred and returns generated from a project.
a. Choice of numeracies
b. Tradability concept
c. Shadow price
d. Border price
Ans: Choice of numeracies
Q49. Which one of the following is not a challenge of SCBA?
a. Difficulty in compensating the affected people
b. Difficulty in identifying project beneficiaries
c. Difficulty in determining the financial profitability of a project
d. Difficulty in valuation
Ans: Difficulty in determining the financial profitability of a project
Q50. Which one of the following is not a reason of market imperfections?
a. Price rationing
b. Shadow price
c. Minimum wages rate
d. Foreign exchange regulation
Ans: Shadow Price
Q51. ___ refers to the opportunity cost for producing or saving foreign exchange.
a. Terminal cost
b. Domestic resource cost
c. Fixed cost
d. Variable cost
Ans: Domestic resource cost
Q52. Which one of the following is used by Indian financial institutions?
a. UNIDO approach
b. Simplified UNIDO approach
c. L-M approach
d. Simplified L-M approach
Ans: Simplified L-M approach
Q53. The UNIDDO approach was first published in ________
a. Guide to possible project appraisal
b. Guide to probable project appraisal
c. Guide to practical project appraisal
d. Guide to profitable project appraisal
Ans: Guide to practical project appraisal
Q54. Which one of the following is not an objective of SCBA approaches?
a. Measuring the contribution of the project on the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the country
b. Determining the effect of the project on the economically backward section of the society
c. Solving the problems of economic imbalances in the different regions across a country
d. Determining the financial profitability of a project
Ans: Determining the financial profitability of a project
Q55. In the L-M approach, inputs and outputs of a project are classified in __ categories.
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
Ans: Three
Q56. Which one of the following is not a non-traded good?
a. Land
b. Building
c. Transportation
d. Vehicles
Ans: Land
Q57. Which one of the following is not a taxation guideline given in the UNIDO approach?
a. Taxes should be included when the project incurs financial losses
b. Taxes should be included in case the project consumes existing non-traded inputs, which are in fixed supply
c. Taxes should be excluded when the domestic production is augmented in project operations
d. Taxes should be ignored in case of fully traded goods
Ans: Taxes should be included when the project incurs financial losses
Q58. The difference between the actual payment made by the consumer and the amount the consumer wishes to pay is known as ______
a. Consumer price
b. Consumer surplus
c. Average saving of the consumer
d. Consumer’s Willingness to pay
Ans: Average saving of the consumer
Q59. The shadow price is determined by considering the cost of production in case the project affects __________
a. Production level of the economy
b. Consumption level of the economy
c. Total import of the economy
d. Total exports of the economy
Ans: Production level of the economy
Q60. ____ refer to non-monetary benefits or costs arising out of a project.
a. Merit want
b. Saving concerns
c. Externalities
d. Market imperfections
Ans: Externalities
Q61. Project termination is the ________ stage of project life cycle
a. First
b. Second
c. Final
d. Middle
Ans: Final
Q62. How many types of project terminations are ther?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans: 4
Q63. _____ refers to the sudden and deliberate termination of a project due to success or failure of the project
a. Termination by addition
b. Termination by extinction
c. Termination by integration
d. Termination by starvation
Ans: Termination by addition
Q64. Which one of the following is not a responsibility of a project termination manager?
a. Ensuring that all activities are completed
b. Delivering the deliverables to the Clint
c. Completing the documentation process for final and invoicing
d. Considering the personal interest of the team members
Ans: Considering the personal interest of the team members
Q65. Which one of the following is not an activity involved in the project termination process?
a. Identifying the reason of project termination
b. Identifying the type of project termination
c. Ensuring that payments are received
d. Documenting the project closure
Ans: Ensuring that payments are received
Q66. Which one of the following is not a part of project performance analysis?
a. Evaluating and remarking the techniques followed in the project
b. Identifying the remaining resources
c. Receiving feedback and suggestion of the team members
d. Identifying the key learning from the project
Ans: Identifying the remaining resources
Q67. _________ involves a brief overview of the entire project.
a. Executive summary
b. Background
c. Methodology
d. Key learning and recommendations
Ans: Executive Summary
Q68. Which one of the following is not an objective of the project final report?
a. Acknowledging the performance of the key personnel
b. Evaluating the performance of the project with respect to the desired objectives
c. Providing key learning from the project
d. Identifying the flaws involved in a project
Ans: Identifying the flaws involved in a project
Q69. ______ involves recording and archiving all important information related to the project.
a. Closure of documentation
b. Analysis of project performance
c. Closure of financial activities
d. Redistribution of resources
Ans: Closure of documentation
Q70. How many organizations were surveyed by Dean (1968)?
a. 18
b. 45
c. 36
d. 63
Ans: 36
Q71. The advent of project management has been most profound in
a. Automobile manufacturing
b. Construction
c. Information technology
d. The U.S. Department of Defense
Ans: Information Technology
Q72. Which one of the following is not a client-related activity?
a. Conducting a quality check and approving the outputs of projects
b. Delivering the outputs to clients
c. Handing over the required documents to the client
d. Documenting the project closure activities
Ans: Documenting the project closure activities
Q73. In which of the following type of termination, the successful project may take a form of a new department or division or subsidiary in the organization?
a. Termination by extinction
b. Termination by addition
c. Termination by integration
d. Termination by starvation
Q74. Which one of the following type of termination does not result in immediate closure of the project activities?
a. Termination by extinction
b. Termination by addition
c. Termination by starvation
d. Termination by integration
Ans: Termination by starvation
Q75. ERP stands for:
a. Enterprise resource planning
b. Entrepreneur resource planning
c. Enter resource program
d. Entrepreneur resource program
Ans: Entrepreneur Resource Program
Q76. _____ involves change management as the operational process changes after the incorporation of the new system.
a. Termination by integration
b. Termination by addition
c. Termination by starvation
d. Termination by extinction
Ans: Termination by integration
Q77. ROI stands for:
a. Rate on investment
b. Return on investment
c. Revenue on investment
d. Raid on investment
Ans: Return of investment
Q78. Which one of the following is not a part of an ideal project final report?
a. Methodology
b. Background
c. Executive summary
d. Customer’s details
Ans: Customer’s Details
Q79. Which one of the following is not included in the redistribution of resources?
a. Returning the borrowed resources
b. Assigning responsibilities to the personnel according to their performance
c. Making recommendations for future projects
d. Identifying the remaining resources
Ans: Making recommendations for future projects
Q80. Which one of the following factors was not considered in the report of the survey conducted by Dean?
a. Economic factors
b. Technical factors
c. Market factors
d. Demographic factors
Ans: Demographic Factors
Q81. Which one of the following is not a feature of project management software?
a. Identifying problems at early stage, so that it can be fixed easily
b. Optimizing the use of resources to complete the task quickly
c. Updating the plan quickly to implement changes in the schedule
d. Deleting the change in the schedule and role of team member
Ans: Deleting the change in the schedule and role of team member
Q82. PERT stands for ______.
a. Project evaluation and review technique
b. Plant evaluation and review technique
c. Plant evaluation and review technology
d. Project evaluation and review technology
Ans: Project evaluation and review technique
Q83. Which one of the following is not a type of project management software?
a. Desktop
b. Client server
c. Web-based
d. Individual system
Ans: Individual System
Q84. _______ is a fast project creation tool that transfers tasks to outlook giving each project its own category.
a. Real Legal Practice Manager
b. Rain Maker gold
c. Project KickStart
d. Real Estate Management System
Ans: Project KickStart
Q85. ____ refers to the project management software that combines the project management process with the other aspects of an organization.
a. Integrated System
b. Web-based
c. Client server
d. Desktop
Ans: Integrated System
Q86. Which one of the following software integrates various Microsoft applications, such as PowerPoint, Outlook, Excel, and Word?
a. Matchware Mind View
b. Project KickStart
c. Rational plan multi project
d. Basecamp
Ans: Project KickStart
Q87. Which one of the following is not an advantage of project management software?
a. Fast Calculation
b. Quality Project Reporting
c. Easy processing of Bulk Data
d. Safety Issues of Data
Ans: Safety Issues of Data
Q88. According to _____, “project management software is widely used to assist with schedule development. These products automate the calculation of mathematical analysis and resource leveling and thus allow for rapid consideration of many schedule alternatives. They are also widely used to print or display the outputs of schedule development.”
a. POMBK
b. PMOKB
c. PMBOK
d. PKOMB
Ans: PMBOK
Q89. Which one of the following is not an application of the Project Management software?
a. Project planning
b. Talent Management
c. Resource Management
d. Project Scheduling
Ans: Talent Management
Q90. WBS stands for:
a. Work Breakdown Structure
b. Work breakdown System
c. Work Breakdown Software
d. Work Breakdown Strategy
Ans: Work Breakdown Structure
Q91. ______ refers to the low-cost Web-based project management software that is newly introduced package and is gaining momentum in the market.
a. Basecamp
b. Rational Plan Multi Project
c. Project Kick Start
d. Tracker Office
Ans: Basecamp
Q92. ______ enhances workflow with exchange, Outlook, and other enterprise-level applications.
a. Office Clip
b. Meta Storm
c. Template
d. VAKCER Project tracker
Ans: Template
Q93. Which one of the following is not a project management application?
a. Easy Task Link
b. In Loox
c. Action Project Manager
d. Allocator
Ans: Allocator
Q94. Which one of the following is not a limitation of project management software?
a. Effective Risk Management
b. Extra Cost
c. Technical Limitation
d. Safety issues of Data
Ans: Effective Risk Management
Q95. ______ involves a set of intranet collaboration applications that offer synchronization with Outlook.
a. Rain Maker Gold
b. Office Clip
c. Project Kick Start
d. Real Estate Management System
Ans: Office Clip
Q96. _______ is designed to assist project managers in developing plans, assigning resources to tasks, tracking progress, managing budgets, and analyzing workloads.
a. Software
b. System
c. Application
d. Package
Ans: Application
Q97. ____ creates project plans in Excel and sync with Microsoft Project, Outlook Tasks, Calendar and Email.
a. Easy Task Sync
b. Foot Prints for Exchange
c. CCS Help Desk
d. Easy Project Plan
Ans: Easy Project Plan
Q98. Which one of the following type of software is available after paying a certain amount of money?
a. Web-based
b. Client server
c. Desktop
d. Integrated System
Ans: Web-Based
Q99. Microsoft Project has been extended with:
a. Microsoft Office Project Source
b. Microsoft Office Project Server
c. Microsoft Office Project system
d. Microsoft Office Project Structure
Ans: Microsoft Office Project Server
Q100. Which one of the following software stores data in SQL server?
a. Foot Prints for Exchange
b. Jello Dashboard
c. K Base for Outlook
d. Know Time
Ans: Foot Prints for Exchange
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